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		Grammar and Linguistics > Grammar Question     
			
		 Grammar Question 
		
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 sally259
 
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							| Grammar Question 
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							| Please could somebody explain the following to me?  Thank you. 
 1.  The cinema has been open since 1950. 
 2.  The cinema was opened in 1950. 
 Why doesn �t  �open � finish with -ed as the past participle in 1, but it does in 2.  I know the second sentence is a passive sentence but what is the first?  Thank you for any replies.  |  10 Apr 2012      
					
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 mododdou
 
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							| the first "open" is an adjective while the second "opened" is a past participle.cheers |  10 Apr 2012     
					
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 olgavillanua
 
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							| Hi Sally! 
 In the second example -opened- is the past participle of a passive sentence whereas in the first one -open- is just an adjective.
 
 I hope my explanation makes it clearer for you.
 
 
 |  10 Apr 2012     
					
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 monicablt
 
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							| Yes, that �s right ! 1st sentence is active :  present perfect of "to be" + open (adjective),  meaning that the cinema opened in 1950 and it has been so since 1950 (i.e. it �s still open) 
 2nd sentence is passive, but for the verb "open" active voice can be used with no difference in meaning, which stays passive anyway: 
 The cinema was opened in 1950 = The cinema opened in 1950 
 |  10 Apr 2012     
					
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 ironik
 
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							| the verb- to open, is an action verb and happens only once, that �s why we can �t say "The cinema has been opened since 1950." It �s completely wrong. 
 However, we can say "it has been open since 1950", because it refers to a continuous state.  
  Also, when you say "the cinema was opened in 1950", you can expect such a sentence afterwards: "..and it was closed in 1990." You can �t do that for the present perfect sentence. 
 I hope this and the other explanations has been helpful   |  10 Apr 2012     
					
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 sally259
 
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							| Thank you all for your answers.  They have helped me a lot. |  11 Apr 2012     
					
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