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ESL forum >
Grammar and Linguistics > Native speakers, help. please :)
Native speakers, help. please :)
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Minka
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Native speakers, help. please :)
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Does anyone have any idea why is it that in the song by U2 - I still haven �t found what I �m looking for - everything is in the present perfect and then, all of a sudden, it says - I have spoke with the tongue of angels - not spoken, but spoke? I �ve checked on several webpages and it always says the same. I �ve listened to it, too. Is it just the poetical licence? |
29 Apr 2012
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ironik
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I think it �s about being poetic. "I have spoken" adds one more syllable, so the melody wouldn �t work and stuff I guess.  not a native though. |
29 Apr 2012
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ldthemagicman
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Dear Minka,
I feel that Ironik is absolutely correct regarding the syllables and the �poetic licence� of this song.
"I have climbed; I have scaled; I have run; I have kissed" --- the phrases use similar words; they sound alike; they repeat the same rhythm.
Unfortunately, "I have spoken", breaks this rhythm. Consequently, the phrase sounds discordant.
For this reason, (in my opinion), the lyricist has written: "I have spoke".
"I have spoke with the tongues of angels".
I think that the reference is to the Bible, Corinthians I:
"Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels and have not love, I am become as sounding brass or a tinkling cymbal"
Les |
29 Apr 2012
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Minka
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That �s what I expected, really, but had to be sure. Thank you, both!
Minka
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30 Apr 2012
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