Welcome to
ESL Printables, the website where English Language teachers exchange resources: worksheets, lesson plans,  activities, etc.
Our collection is growing every day with the help of many teachers. If you want to download you have to send your own contributions.





ESL Forum:

Techniques and methods in Language Teaching

Games, activities and teaching ideas

Grammar and Linguistics

Teaching material

Concerning worksheets

Concerning powerpoints

Concerning online exercises

Make suggestions, report errors

Ask for help

Message board


ESL forum > Grammar and Linguistics > Native speakers, help. please :)    

Native speakers, help. please :)


Native speakers, help. please :)
Does anyone have any idea why is it that in the song by U2 - I still haven īt found what I īm looking for - everything is in the present perfect and then, all of a sudden, it says - I have spoke with the tongue of angels - not spoken, but spoke? I īve checked on several webpages and it always says the same. I īve listened to it, too. Is it just the poetical licence?

29 Apr 2012      


I think it īs about being poetic. "I have spoken" adds one more syllable, so the melody wouldn īt work and stuff I guess. Smile not a native though.

29 Apr 2012     

United Kingdom

Dear Minka,
I feel that Ironik is absolutely correct regarding the syllables and the īpoetic licenceī of this song.
"I have climbed; I have scaled; I have run; I have kissed" --- the phrases use similar words; they sound alike; they repeat the same rhythm.
Unfortunately, "I have spoken", breaks this rhythm.  Consequently, the phrase sounds discordant.
For this reason, (in my opinion), the lyricist has written: "I have spoke".
"I have spoke with the tongues of angels".
I think that the reference is to the Bible, Corinthians I:
"Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels and have not love, I am become as sounding brass or a tinkling cymbal"

29 Apr 2012     


That īs what I expected, really, but had to be sure. Thank you, both! 


30 Apr 2012