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ESL forum > Grammar and Linguistics > Native speakers, help. please :)    

Native speakers, help. please :)



Minka
Slovenia

Native speakers, help. please :)
 
Does anyone have any idea why is it that in the song by U2 - I still haven īt found what I īm looking for - everything is in the present perfect and then, all of a sudden, it says - I have spoke with the tongue of angels - not spoken, but spoke? I īve checked on several webpages and it always says the same. I īve listened to it, too. Is it just the poetical licence?

29 Apr 2012      



ironik
Australia

I think it īs about being poetic. "I have spoken" adds one more syllable, so the melody wouldn īt work and stuff I guess. Smile not a native though.

29 Apr 2012     



ldthemagicman
United Kingdom

Dear Minka,
 
I feel that Ironik is absolutely correct regarding the syllables and the īpoetic licenceī of this song.
 
"I have climbed; I have scaled; I have run; I have kissed" --- the phrases use similar words; they sound alike; they repeat the same rhythm.
 
Unfortunately, "I have spoken", breaks this rhythm.  Consequently, the phrase sounds discordant.
 
For this reason, (in my opinion), the lyricist has written: "I have spoke".
 
"I have spoke with the tongues of angels".
 
I think that the reference is to the Bible, Corinthians I:
"Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels and have not love, I am become as sounding brass or a tinkling cymbal"
 
Les

29 Apr 2012     



Minka
Slovenia

That īs what I expected, really, but had to be sure. Thank you, both! 

 Minka

30 Apr 2012